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The EgyptianVerb a nd it's Confusions :/

 
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yandiel
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PostPosted: Sat Oct 04, 2014 6:52 am    Post subject: The EgyptianVerb a nd it's Confusions :/ Reply with quote

Not sure if this is the proper site to ask this but here goes..

While self teaching myself Egyptian I've grown a bit lost with some of the "verbology" (for lack of a better term). Obviously it's quite difficult to see "sdm=f" and know it's exact meaning without taking a look at the entirety of the sentence.

I recently read somewhere (James P Allen), that egyptologists haven't completely come into agreement on how to classify Classical /Middle Egyptian verbs or how to properly categorize the forms, this partially explains my ignorance. Anyhow,
So technically there isn't a "present tense" or a "past tense" better termed "the simple tenses" as I initially believed while reading deeper into the Egyptian language, since the idea of the verb is believed to be tenselss.

While reading and doing some research on my own, I realized with the "past tense" (sdm-n=f) how it may have been vocalized CaCi(C) + na + pronomial suffix thus we have: sadimnaf = he heard. This formula is the same for "adjectival verb construction" : nfr = nafir (though I'm unable to remember if both words contain a long "a" off the top of my head). So could it be that the two closest cognates for "the simple tense" actually be a form of participle instead since participles, I believe, are generally agreed upon and this participle then imitates one of the "simple tenses"?!

I've noticed many books fail to mention sdm=f -"present tense" and immediately gets into a ridiculous explanation of their take on the verbal system and goes immediately into sdm=f without full detail and /or gets into the sdm-n=f with a bit more detail although leav ing more to the imagination and ul timately you're left with "what the hell did I just read?!"

Does anyone understand my concerns here or am I the only one struggling with comprehension of the simple tenses?
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